Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 21.06.2025 01:38
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
How do you handle your mother-in-law after you heard her talking badly about you in the next room?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Is it true that most Indian men are gay and they just hide their feelings?
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.